This might be a controversial topic but I want to prove all of you that the differences we make out of religions are not SO big as they seem.
First of all, I will tell you all that I am a muslim because I say La ilaha Illa Allah "No God but Allah(swt) and Mohammad (saw) is his messenger"
Does this really mean that I am not a christian or a jew? This is a difficult question.
<span>Qur'an 3:64-71 Surah Ale-'Imran (The Family of 'Imran)</span>
<span>Say: "O people of the Book! come to common terms as between us and you: that we worship none but Allah; that we associate no partners with Him; that we erect not from among ourselves Lords and patrons other than Allah."</span>
Did Allah say, O Muslims? No, Allah Almighty said, "O PEOPLE OF THE BOOK", according to ulema that means People who follow the 4 books that came to this world, Torah, Zabur, Gospel, Quran.
Al-Baqara, Chapter #2, Verse #4)
And who believe in (the Qur'an and the Sunnah ) which has been sent down (revealed) to you (O Muhammad صلى الله عليه وسلم) and in that which was sent down before you [the Taurat (Torah) and the Injeel (gospel), etc.] and they believe with certainty in the Hereafter. (Resurrection, recompense of their good and bad deeds, Paradise and Hell).
Again I thought I should facilitate you with an example. Here, according to the tafsirs and facts that Allah Almighty is telling us to follow ALL the 4 books that have been sent in this world. According to ulema, the other 3 books are already somewhere mentioned in the Quran, so one only needs to follow Quran, but this does NOT change the fact that the Quran is ONLY book to be believed in but ALL the books are to be believed in.
So my first point summarizes as follows that I do not only believe in the Quran, but I also believe in the Torah, Zabur, and Gospel. Even in Imaan-e-Mufassil one claims that he believes in ALL the books Allah sent down to us.
Secondly, I want to make it clear that I am a BETTER christian and a BETTER jew than MAJORITY of christians and jews. I will prove it to you how.
To start with, Im going to give an example of a situation. This example may be easy for those who have children. For example, if a person has 2 sons. One son is outwardly very much devoted to his father. He has pictures of his father in his room, daily, when he goes to work, cleans the picture of the father etc. But he is a bit lazy on what his father says. His father tells him to respect young people and on the other hand that son is bullying the young children.
The other son has the opposite scenario. He does not really mention his father's name in places and really is nuetral in his father's love. Is not devoted to his father or in other words, does not BLINDLY love him, but he really obeys him. Once his father told him something and he really put a law in his life never to disobey him.
Now tell me WHICH son is actually better one? Ofcoarse, the one who obeys.
You all would be wondering WHY did I mention this example, as it is totally out of context? I said it because I am going to prove everyone of you that I as a muslim am a much much better christian or a jew than themselves.
Take Pork (pig) meat for instance.
Leviticus 11:7-8
"And the swine, though he divided the hoof, and be clovenfooted, yet he cheweth not the cud; he is unclean to you.
"Of their flesh shall ye not eat, and their carcass shall ye not touch; they are unclean to you."
Matthew 5:17-19
"Think not that I (Jesus) am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, But to fulfill.
"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law , till all is fulfilled.
"Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven."
Isaiah 65:2-4
I have spread out my hands all the day unto a rebellious people, which walketh in a way that was not good, after their own thoughts;
A people that provoketh me to anger continually to my face; that sacrificeth in gardens, and burneth incense upon alters of brick;
Which remain among the graves, and lodge in the monuments, eating swine's flesh, and the broth of abominable things is in their vessels."
Isaiah 66:17
"They that sanctify themselves, and purify themselves in the gardens behind one tree in the midst, eating swine's flesh, and the abomination, and the mouse, shall be consumed together, saith the Lord."
Majority of MUSLIMS do NOT eat pork and MAJORITY of christians and jews DO EAT pork.
Take alcohol as an ANOTHER example:
Isn’t it Really Grape Juice?
Some take the words for wine to mean ‘grape juice.’ If this were so, then why would there be prohibitions against drunkenness? One cannot get drunk on grape juice. Further, Jesus’ first miracle was changing the water into wine at the wedding of Cana in Galilee. He made between 120 and 180 gallons of wine! Even if this had been grape juice, it would soon turn to wine because the fermentation process would immediately begin. But it most certainly was not grape juice: the head waiter in John 2:10 said, “Every man sets out the good wine first, then after the guests have drunk freely, the poor wine. But you have kept the good wine until now.” The verb translated ‘drunk freely’ is almost always used of getting drunk (and is so translated in the NRSV here). In the least, the people at this wedding feast, if not drunk, would certainly be drinking alcohol fairly freely (if not, this verb means something here that is nowhere else attested4). And this makes perfect sense in the context: The reason why a man brings out the poorer wine later is because the good wine has numbed the senses a bit. Grape juice would hardly mask anything. Note also Acts 2:13—”they are full of sweet wine”—an inaccurate comment made about the apostles when they began speaking in tongues, as though this explained their unusual behavior. The point is: If they were full of grape juice would this comment even have made any sense at all? That would be like saying, “Well, they’re all acting strange and silly because they have had too much orange juice this morning!”
There are other references to alcoholic beverages in the Bible: Several times in the first books of the Bible, wine and strong drink are prohibited to those who take a Nazarite vow (cf. Num 6, Judges 13). Even grape juice and fresh and dried grapes (i.e., raisins, as the NIV renders the word) are prohibited to the Nazarite (Numbers 6:3)!5But that restriction is only for those who make this vow. If someone today wants to claim that believers do not have the right to drink alcohol on the analogy of a Nazarite vow (as some today are fond of doing), they also should say that believers ought not to eat Raisin Bran!
Negative Statements about Wine Indicate that it is not Grape Juice
Further, the Bible at times speaks very harshly about becoming enslaved to drink or allowing it to control a person, especially to the point of drunkenness. Proverbs 20:1—“Wine is a mocker, strong drink a brawler, And whoever is intoxicated by it is not wise” (NASB). Cf. also Prov 21:17 (where heavy drinking and gluttony are equally condemned); 1 Sam 1:14; Isa 5:11, 22; 28:1 (drunkenness is condemned); 28:7; 29:9; 56:12; Jer 23:9; 51:7; Joel 3:3. In the New Testament notice: Eph 5:18 (“do not get drunk with wine”); 1 Tim 3:3, 8; Titus 1:7 ([elders and deacons ought not be] “addicted to wine or strong drink”); Titus 2:3 (older women, who would serve as role models to the younger ones, must not be addicted to wine). As well, numerous passages use wine or drunkenness in an analogy about God’s wrath, immorality, etc. (cf. Rev. 14:8, 10; 16:19; 17:2; 18:3).
The significance of these negative statements is just this: If this were only grape juice, why would excess in drinking it be condemned? If this were only grape juice, why are certain mental effects attributed to it (cf., e.g.,Psalm 60:3)? One can’t have it both ways. You can’t say that wine is always grape juice, for then the negative statements in scripture make no sense; those who say that it is only grape juice tend to focus just on the neutral and positive passages, conveniently allowing them to condemn the drinking of real wine at all times. But even this position is not logical: If the Bible only speaks of grape juice, then it makes no comment about alcoholic wine.And if so, then it does not directly prohibit it. And if we are going to prohibit something that the Bible does not address, why stop at wine? Why don’t we include the ballet, opera, football games, country-western music (actually, I might be in favor of banning this one!), salt water fishing, zippers on clothes, etc. Once legalism infests the soul it doesn’t know where to quit.
In sum, is wine the same as grape juice? No, for if it were, the Bible would hardly condemn the abuse of such. Those who argue that the two are identical simply cannot handle the passages that speak about excess.
"This page was copied from an article said by Daniel B. Wallace." NOT a muslim
The most controversial question for CHRISTIANS, Is Jesus Christ REALLY the son of God Almighty?
I will quote nothing here but a summary of a speach by Dr. Zakir Naik. Let me quote some verses of Bible over here:
Chronicles, chapter 28:
[Here, David is being quoted.]3: But God said to me, `You may not build a house for my name, for you are a warrior and have shed blood.'
4: Yet the LORD God of Israel chose me from all my father's house to be king over Israel for ever; for he chose Judah as leader, and in the house of Judah my father's house, and among my father's sons he took pleasure in me to make me king over all Israel.
5: And of all my sons (for the LORD has given me many sons) he has chosen Solomon my son to sit upon the throne of the kingdom of the LORD over Israel.
6: He said to me, `It is Solomon your son who shall build my house and my courts, for I have chosen him to be my Son, and I will be his Father.
7: I will establish his kingdom for ever if he continues resolute in keeping my commandments and my ordinances, as he is today.'
Here, again God is quoted as directly saying that Solomon is His "Son".
These passages establish that the term "Son of God" is used in Jewish scripture to mean someone who is close to God, and in particular it is used for Jewish kings of the House of David. This explains why it was used for Jesus (peace be with him), who was of the House of David and the Messiah. Therefore, this helps to confirm the Islamic view, that Jesus (peace be with him) is NOT God, and that he wasn't considered to be God by his followers, who for example may have been the probably Jewish authors of the first three (synoptic) Gospels.
The term "Son of God" as used in Jewish scripture (such as for Solomon, peace be with him) has absolutely nothing to do with a person being God, or having any share in divinity. It is a metaphorical term meaning someone who is close to God.
Some important points to note are:
1. In the above passages, Solomon (peace be with him) is clearly indicated as being the "Son of God." This is most clear in the last passage quoted, in 1 Chronicles 28:6.
2. According to the Hebrew Bible, this is God Himself speaking. Therefore, Christian claims that God is supposed to have said directly that Jesus (peace be with him) was His Son means that Jesus (pbwh) was divine, have to also respond to the fact that here, Solomon (pbwh) is also stated by God to be His Son.
These passages from the Hebrew Bible clearly show that in Jewish usage, the term "Son of God" means nothing more than someone close to God. Therefore, if the early Christians also called Jesus (pbwh) the "Son of God," they would have meant it in a way consistent with the way the term is used in the Hebrew Bible, such as for Solomon (pbwh) in the passages above.
The early Christians were all Jews, and familiar with Jewish scripture. However, due to the efforts of Paul, after several decades the number of Gentile followers of Jesus (pbwh) continued to increase. These Gentile Christians did not have the knowledge of Jewish scripture which the Jewish Christians had, therefore they probably misinterpreted the term "Son of God" to mean Jesus (pbwh) was divine. This Gentile misunderstanding of Jewish terms has perpetuated into Christianity today, and is probably also partly responsible for the Christian doctrine of the Trinity.
The evidence is strong that Christian beliefs, as most Christians believe in them today, are not the beliefs of the earliest Christians, who were Jews and would have had a Jewish understanding of scripture. This is also the claim of Islam, and therefore the many statements of the Qur'an regarding Jesus (pbwh) seem to be supported, both by our investigations of early Christian history, and our investigations into terms such as "Son of God" in the Hebrew Bible.
It is because of this misunderstanding of the term "Son of God" that the Qur'an criticizes the use of this term:Say not "Trinity": desist, it will be better for you, for God is one God. Glory be to Him. (Far exalted is He) above having a son. To him belong all things in the heaven and on earth. And enough is God as a Disposer of affairs.
Take it as ANOTHER example, I say to a little boy, go son fetch me a mug of water. That does not truly mean that I call him BEGOTTEN son. Because ofcoarse, Im not even married. Similarly, Allah Almighty loves His creation and seldom he called his messengers as sons of God. That does not mean they are BEGOTTEN sons (Nauzubillah). Because that is NOT a charecteristic of Allah Almighty. Allah does NOT beget NOR is begotten. Allah is free of needs. Allah is everlasting, He does not need anyone to GIVE the world etc to anyone. He does not get old! This is what christians and jews believe too so WHY would Allah need SONS! As a love for mankind, yes Allah did say in the new testament SONS to his messengers but never has he said BEGOTTEN son. Thats a misunderstood term and nothing else.
Another funny fact, if jesus (a.s) is the SON of Allah Almighty because he had no FATHER then Adam (a.s) is the BIGGER SON of Allah Almighty (nauzubillah) because he had no father and no MOTHER!
Bible often said about the messenger of Allah Almighty to come because in bible it is said:
<span>Almighty God speaks to Moses in Book of Deuteronomy chapter 18 verse 18:</span>
<span>"I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and I will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him."</span>
<span>The Christians say that this prophecy refers to Jesus (pbuh) because Jesus (pbuh) was like Moses (pbuh). Moses (pbuh) was a Jew, as well as Jesus (pbuh) was a Jew. Moses (pbuh) was a Prophet and Jesus (pbuh) was also a Prophet.</span>
<span> </span>
If these two are the only criteria for this prophecy to be fulfilled, then all the Prophets of the Bible who came after
Moses (pbuh) such as Solomon, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Malachi, John the Baptist, etc. (pbut) will
fulfill this prophecy since all were Jews as well as prophets.
<span>However, it is Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) who is like Moses (pbuh):</span>
<span>i) </span>
<span>Both had a father and a mother, while Jesus (pbuh) was born miraculously without any male intervention.</span>
<span>[Mathew 1:18 and Luke 1:35 and also Al-Qur'an 3:42-47]</span>
<span>ii) </span> <span>Both were married and had children. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not marry nor had children.</span>
<span>iii) </span> <span>Both died natural deaths. Jesus (pbuh) has been raised up alive. (4:157-158)</span>
<span>Muhammad (pbuh) is from among the brethren of Moses (pbuh). Arabs are brethren of Jews. Abraham (pbuh) had two sons: Ishmail and Isaac (pbut). The Arabs are the descendants of Ishmail (pbuh) and the Jews are the descendants of Isaac (pbuh).</span>
<span>Words in the mouth:</span>
<span>Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was unlettered and whatever revelations he received from Almighty God he repeated them verbatim.</span>
<span>"I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him."</span>
<span>[Deuteronomy 18:18]</span>
<span>iv) </span> <span>Both besides being Prophets were also kings i.e. they could inflict capital punishment. Jesus (pbuh) said, "My kingdom is not of this world." (John 18:36).</span>
<span>v) </span> <span> </span>
Both were accepted as Prophets by their people in their lifetime but Jesus (pbuh) was rejected by his
people. John chapter 1 verse 11 states, "He came unto his own, but his own received him not."
<span>iv) </span> <span>Both brought new laws and new regulations for their people. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not bring any new laws. (Mathew 5:17-18)</span><span>.</span>
<span>2. </span> <span>It is Mentioned in the book of Deuteronomy chapter 18:19</span>
<span>"And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not harken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him."</span>
<span>3. </span> <span>Muhammad (pbuh) is prophesised in the book of Isaiah:</span>
<span>It is mentioned in the book of Isaiah chapter 29 verse 12:</span>
<span>"And the book is delivered to him that is not learned, saying, Read this, I pray thee: and he saith, I am not learned."</span>
<span>When Archangel Gabrail commanded Muhammad (pbuh) by saying Iqra - "Read", he replied, "I am not learned"</span><span>.</span>
<span> 4. </span> <span>prophet Muhammad (pbuh) mentioned by name in the old testament:</span>
<span>Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16:</span>
<span>"Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem."</span>
<span> </span>
"His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters
of Jerusalem."
<span> </span>
In the Hebrew language im is added for respect. Similarely im is added after the name of Prophet Muhammad
(pbuh) to make it Muhammadim. In English translation they have even translated the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) as "altogether lovely", but in the Old Testament in Hebrew, the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is yet present.
<span> </span>
<span> </span><span>Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) in the New Testament:</span><span> </span>
<span> </span>
<span> </span><span>Al-Qur'an Chapter 61 Verse 6:</span>
<span>"And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said, 'O Children of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me and giving glad tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmed.' But when he came to them with clear signs, they said, 'This is evident sorcery!' "</span>
<span>All the prophecies mentioned in the Old Testament regarding Muhammad (pbuh) besides applying to the Jews also hold good for the Christians.</span>
<span>1. </span> <span>John chapter 14 verse 16:</span>
<span>"And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you forever."</span>
<span>2. </span> <span>Gospel of John chapter 15 verse 26:</span>
<span> </span>
"But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which
proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me."
<span>3. </span> <span>Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 7:</span>
<span> </span>
<span> </span><span> </span>
"Nevertheless I tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not
come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you".
<span> </span>
"Ahmed" or "Muhammad" meaning "the one who praises" or "the praised one" is almost the translation of the
Greek word Periclytos. In the Gospel of John 14:16, 15:26, and 16:7. The word 'Comforter' is used in the English translation for the Greek word Paracletos which means advocate or a kind friend rather than a comforter.
Paracletos is the warped reading for Periclytos. Jesus (pbuh) actually prophesised Ahmed by name. Even the
Greek word Paraclete refers to the Prophet (pbuh) who is a mercy for all creatures.
<span> </span>
Some Christians say that the Comforter mentioned in these prophecies refers to the Holy Sprit. They fail to realise
that the prophecy clearly says that only if Jesus (pbuh) departs will the Comforter come. The Bible states that the
Holy Spirit was already present on earth before and during the time of Jesus (pbuh), in the womb of Elizabeth, and again when Jesus (pbuh) was being baptised, etc. Hence this prophecy refers to none other than Prophet
Muhammad (pbuh).
<span>4. </span> <span>Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 12-14:</span>
<span> </span>
"I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth is
come, he will guide you unto all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He shall glorify me".
<span>The Sprit of Truth, spoken about in this prophecy referes to none other than Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)</span><span> </span>
<span><span>NOTE</span></span><span>: All quotations of the Bible are taken from the King James Version. </span>
<span> </span>
Now Christians blame Quran for a fact that they misunderstand themselves.
Was Adam made from different things as the quran states? Quran says man:
A. "Created man, out of a (mere) clot of congealed blood," (Q 96:2)
B. "We created man from sounding clay" (Q 15:26)
C. "He created him from dust" (Q 3:59)
D. "We created him before out of nothing?" (Q 19:67)
E: "He has created man from a sperm-drop (Q 16:4)
But that is just a misunderstanding. If you see the verses:
Surah Qiyamah : (The ressurection)
37. Was he not a Nutfah (mixed male and female discharge of semen) poured forth?
38. Then he became an 'Alaqa (a clot); then (Allah) shaped and fashioned (him) in due proportion.
39. And made him in two sexes, male and female.
40. Is not He (Allah Who does that), Able to give life to the dead? (Yes! He is Able to do all things).
O mankind! If you are in doubt about the Resurrection, then verily We have created you (i.e. Adam) from dust, then from a Nutfah (mixed drops of male and female sexual discharge i.e. the offspring of Adam), then from a clot (a piece of thick coagulated blood) then from a little lump of flesh - some formed and some unformed (as in the case of miscarriage) - that We may make (it) clear to you (i.e. to show you Our Power and Ability to do what We will). And We cause whom We will to remain in the wombs for an appointed term, then We bring you out as infants, then (give you growth) that you may reach your age of full strength. And among you there is he who dies (young), and among you there is he who is brought back to the miserable old age, so that he knows nothing after having known. And you see the earth barren, but when We send down water (rain) on it, it is stirred (to life), and it swells and puts forth every lovely kind (of growth).
( سورة الحج , Al-Hajj, Chapter #22, Verse #5)
Then We made the Nutfah into a clot (a piece of thick coagulated blood), then We made the clot into a little lump of flesh, then We made out of that little lump of flesh bones, then We clothed the bones with flesh, and then We brought it forth as another creation. So Blessed is Allah, the Best of creators.
( سورة المؤمنون , Al-Mumenoon, Chapter #23, Verse #14)
So this is only a series of human development that is also agreed by the scientists around the world.
Author of over 200 publications. Former President of the Teratology Society among other accomplishments. Professor Johnson began to take an interest in the scientific signs in the Qur'an at the 7th Saudi Medical Conference (1982), when a special committee was formed to investigate scientific signs in the Qur'an and <span>H</span>adith. At first, Professor Johnson refused to accept the existence of such verses in the Qur'an and <span>H</span>adith. But after a dicussuion with Sheikh Zindani he took an interest and concentrated his research on the internal as well as external development of the fetus.
<span>"...in summary, the Qur'an describes not only the development of external form, but emphasises also the internal stages, the stages inside the embryo, of its creation and development, emphasising major events recognised by contemporary science."
"As a scientist, I can only deal with things which I can specifically see. I can understand embryology and developmental biology. I can understand the words that are translated to me from the Qur'an. As I gave the example before, if I were to transpose myself into that era, knowing what I do today and describing things, I could not describe the things that were described...
I see no evidence to refute the concept that this individual Mu</span><span><span>h</span></span><span>ammad had to be developing this information from some place... so I see nothing here in conflict with the concept that divine intervention was involved in what he was able to write..."</span>
There is alot that I still have to tell you but Im afraid that is going to force me to make a bunch of novels because it is difficult to summarize the truth, it hides TOO many facts. So here is the situation. What I am saying has TOO many facts to tell but how thats the question.
Thanks and jazakallah for reading this.
Do follow me on facebook and do subscribe to my blog:
www.iqrasearchtruth.blogspot.com
Some references for the material I posted here:
http://www.islamicmedicine.org/embryoengtext.htm
http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Science/scientists.html
http://www.islam101.com/religions/christianity/mBible.htm
http://bible.org/article/bible-and-alcohol
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